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# Are these basically the same as each other?

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g(x)=f(x)+p

g(x)=f(x+s)

assuming p and s are the same value

Guest May 16, 2017

#1
+4734
+2

No...for example let's say f(x) = x2

And...if p and s are the same, let's just call them both "p" .

First scenario:

g(x) = f(x) + p

g(x) = x2 + p

Second scenario:

g(x) = f(x + p)

g(x) = (x + p)2

g(x) = (x + p)(x + p)

g(x) = x2 + 2px + p2

f(x) + p  ≠  f(x + p)

If f(x) = x, then yes they turn out the same.

But they are not always equal.

hectictar  May 16, 2017
Sort:

#1
+4734
+2

No...for example let's say f(x) = x2

And...if p and s are the same, let's just call them both "p" .

First scenario:

g(x) = f(x) + p

g(x) = x2 + p

Second scenario:

g(x) = f(x + p)

g(x) = (x + p)2

g(x) = (x + p)(x + p)

g(x) = x2 + 2px + p2

f(x) + p  ≠  f(x + p)

If f(x) = x, then yes they turn out the same.

But they are not always equal.

hectictar  May 16, 2017

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