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avatar+154 

Domain and range of 80n-275

 Jun 4, 2014

Best Answer 

 #1
avatar+128053 
+16

This is a linear equation.....I can substitute any real value in for "n" (the domain) and get back any real number (the range).

So, rhe domain and range is just (∞, ∞)

 

 Jun 4, 2014
 #1
avatar+128053 
+16
Best Answer

This is a linear equation.....I can substitute any real value in for "n" (the domain) and get back any real number (the range).

So, rhe domain and range is just (∞, ∞)

 

CPhill Jun 4, 2014
 #2
avatar+118587 
+5

Hang on a minute.  how can this have a domain and range?

It is not an equation it doesn't even have a y value.

It is just an expression.

Maybe it is me that is wrong.  Can other mathematicians arbitrate please?

 Jun 5, 2014
 #3
avatar+128053 
0

Well...if we put in any real number for n...don't we get a real number back?? And since we can return any real number we want...that's what I was getting at.....the "y" is implied..

 Jun 5, 2014
 #4
avatar+128053 
0

Sorry...I meant to type "function" rather than "equation".....I'll stand by the rest...

 

 Jun 5, 2014
 #5
avatar+118587 
0

Yes maybe - I'm not sure.

I knew that is what the question was implying but I'd still like to know what other mathematicians think.

It is a lot better now that you have changed the word equation to function.  You are probably right.

 Jun 6, 2014
 #6
avatar+33603 
0

Yes, it's functions that have domains and ranges.

 Jun 6, 2014
 #7
avatar+118587 
+8

Yes I know functions and relations have domains and ranges but this has no equal sign.

Techically speaking - does it really have a domain and a range.  To me it is just an expression.

(I know an equal sign and a y or f(n) is implied BUT it is not really there!)

I know I am being padentic but mathematics is a padentic field of study!

 Jun 7, 2014
 #8
avatar+128053 
+5

Quiet, whippersnapper!!! Things are what we say they are !!!

I'll get you, my pretty...and your little dog, too!!

 

 

 Jun 7, 2014
 #9
avatar+118587 
+8

It's when you are reduced to threats and witchcraft that I KNOW I am in the lead!!!!!

 

 Jun 7, 2014
 #10
avatar+2353 
0

Even though the function might not be defined in the sense of f(n) = 80n-275, it still maps R->R which even though it is an undefined function still has a domain and range. The question here is not whether or not this function has a domain and range, but rather whether it's a mathematical fallacy to have an undefined function.

 Jun 7, 2014
 #11
avatar+128053 
0

HAHAHA!!!!!.....I love that one, Melody!!!

But, still.......THE GREAT AND POWERFUL OZ HAS SPOKEN!!!! .....Now, bring me the broomstick of the Wicked Witch of the West!!!.....Go!!!   .....Go!!!

 

 Jun 7, 2014

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