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If: cos(2pi)= approx 1. why is then cos(-3pi) = (-1)

 Oct 25, 2014

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 #2
avatar+118608 
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If you think about and understand this you will see that the cos(angle) is given by the x value on the unit circle.  2pi is one complete revolution.  The x value at 0 radians is 1

3pi=3pi-2pi=pi radians on the unit circle. The x value at pi on the unit circle is -1

I hope that helps.    

 

 Oct 26, 2014
 #1
avatar+23246 
+5

Because cos has a period of 2π; therefore, ...   cos(4π)  =  cos(2π)  =  cos(0)  =  cos(-2π)  =  cos(-4π)  ...

Cos(π) = -1; so ... cos(-5π)  =  cos(-3π)  =  cos(-π)  =  cos(π)  =  cos(3π)  =  cos(5π)...
 Oct 25, 2014
 #2
avatar+118608 
+5
Best Answer

If you think about and understand this you will see that the cos(angle) is given by the x value on the unit circle.  2pi is one complete revolution.  The x value at 0 radians is 1

3pi=3pi-2pi=pi radians on the unit circle. The x value at pi on the unit circle is -1

I hope that helps.    

 

Melody Oct 26, 2014

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