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If every particle obeys the law of quantum mechanics, and has it's own wave function, does the universe when it existed before the Big Bang have it's own wave function? And if it is solved already, is it difficult to comprehend as has been solved from an observer outside the universe?

Please explain the mathematics behind this concept as well please.

 Mar 2, 2015
 #1
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tghen the world would go pop and dinos would come back and r**e the vampires

 Mar 2, 2015
 #2
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that is if 1+1=2 but it doesnt. 9+10=21

 Mar 2, 2015
 #3
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waz nin' plus ten' . twenny wun

 Mar 2, 2015
 #4
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Well search up WheelerDeWitt Equation

 Mar 2, 2015

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