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In a triangle ABC, AB = AC. D is the mid-point of BC, E is the foot of the perpendicular drawn from D to AC, and F is the mid-point of DE.

Prove that AF is perpendicular to BE.

 Nov 23, 2015

Best Answer 

 #2
avatar
+26

Nice proof Heureka, my first attempt was by vectors but I couldn't find one, I intended to get back to it  :) , but I switched my attention to a co-ordinate geometry approach.

I have two such solutions. The first had its origin at D with DA as the vertical axis. That worked but the algebra was messy in places. Much better it turns out is to have A as the origin with AC along the x-axis. (Diagram below).

 

Let B and C have co-ordinates (p, q) and (c, 0) respectively, then D will have co-ordinates

((p + c)/2, q/2).

From there, E will be ((p + c)/2, 0) and F ((p + c)/2, q/4).

 

The slope of AF will be   q4.2p+c=q2(p+c)

and the slope of BEq0p(p+c)/2=2qpc.

The product of those is

q2(p+c).2q(pc)=q2p2c2,

which, since

p2+q2=c2 so that p2c2=q2

is equal to -1.

Hence, AF and BE are at right angles to each other.

 

- Bertie

 Nov 25, 2015
 #1
avatar+26396 
+25

In a triangle ABC, AB = AC. D is the mid-point of BC, E is the foot of the perpendicular drawn from D to AC, and F is the mid-point of DE. Prove that AF is perpendicular to BE.

 

I. Definition:

 a=BC|a|=ab=AC|b|=bbb=b2ab=a2aab=a22d=ADd=b12a  f=AEf=(bd)b2bf=(b(b12a))b2bf=(b2(ab)2)b2bf=(b2a24)b2bf=(1a24b2)b 

 e=EDe=dfe=(b12a)fe2=(b12a)1212fAF=e2+f=(b12a)1212f+fAF=(b12a)12+12fAF=(b12a)12+12(1a24b2)bAF=b[12+12(1a24b2)]14aAF=b(12+12a28b2)14aAF=b(1a28b2)14a  BE=a(bf)BE=ab+fBE=ab+(1a24b2)bBE=ab+b(a24b2)bBE=a(a24b2)b 

 

II. Prove that AF is perpendicular to BE.

 AF=14a+b(1a28b2)BE=ab(a24b2)Perpendicular, if  ( AFBE )=0( AFBE )=(14a+b(1a28b2))(ab(a24b2))( AFBE )=14aa+14ab(a24b2)+ba(1a28b2)bb(1a28b2)(a24b2)aa=a2ab=ba=a22bb=b2( AFBE )=a24+14a22(a24b2)+a22(1a28b2)b2(1a28b2)(a24b2)( AFBE )=a24+a432b2+a22a416b2(1a28b2)(a24)( AFBE )=a24+a432b2+a22a416b2a24+a432b2( AFBE )=a24a24+a22+a432b2+a432b2a416b2( AFBE )=a22+a22+a416b2a416b2=0 

 

laugh

 Nov 25, 2015
 #2
avatar
+26
Best Answer

Nice proof Heureka, my first attempt was by vectors but I couldn't find one, I intended to get back to it  :) , but I switched my attention to a co-ordinate geometry approach.

I have two such solutions. The first had its origin at D with DA as the vertical axis. That worked but the algebra was messy in places. Much better it turns out is to have A as the origin with AC along the x-axis. (Diagram below).

 

Let B and C have co-ordinates (p, q) and (c, 0) respectively, then D will have co-ordinates

((p + c)/2, q/2).

From there, E will be ((p + c)/2, 0) and F ((p + c)/2, q/4).

 

The slope of AF will be   q4.2p+c=q2(p+c)

and the slope of BEq0p(p+c)/2=2qpc.

The product of those is

q2(p+c).2q(pc)=q2p2c2,

which, since

p2+q2=c2 so that p2c2=q2

is equal to -1.

Hence, AF and BE are at right angles to each other.

 

- Bertie

Guest Nov 25, 2015
 #3
avatar+26396 
+10

Very very Nice proof Berti !

 

Your answers are always wonderful

 

laughlaughlaugh

 Nov 26, 2015
 #4
avatar+130466 
+5

Very nice, heureka and Bertie......!!!!!

 

 

cool cool cool

 Nov 26, 2015

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