"The best argument that I could see against a "last" digit of an irrational number is that the concept of a "last digit" in an irrational number doesn't make sense, but that doesn't necessarily mean that it doesn't exist."
That sentence makes grammatical sense, but is semantic nonsense! By definition, an irrational number doesn't have a last digit and hence there is no last digit!
The proof that pi is irrational was first demonstrated by Lambert in the 18th century. There are several proofs which are more or less complicated (I wouldn't call any of them simple!) - see http://www.mathpages.com/home/kmath313.htm for example.