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Thanks Melody.

 

This was an attempt to demonstrate that because an integer squared (x^2) (where all such numbers have an odd number of positive divisors) is equal to another number squared (y^2), plus an additional factor (5) that the value of (x) and/or (y) cannot be integers. This means it is equal to a number that has an even number of divisors, or it does not have an even number of divisors to begin with. Because of this contradiction, the number cannot be an integer. Extending on this was an attempt to explain why an irrational number had characteristics of both even and odd numbers.

 

The explanation I presented is incomplete. This has been rolling around in my head for years, and it seemed functional, until an examination in a proper light. On closer inspection, it seems it is an incomplete amalgamation of proofs by contradiction and a hint of a proof by infinite decent thrown in for good measure (Fermat would be appalled). Mostly, it is a succession of incongruous comparisons that are not made compatible mathematically. Very lame. This is worse than mixing up metaphors. So, thank you Melody, I now see the darkness at the end of the tunnel.

 

 Your proof is to the point clear. CPhill’s, detailed and elegant, proof clearly demonstrates the paradox of (even and odd) parity.

 

Somewhere, there is a direct proof (instead of proofs by contradiction) of irrational numbers. Probably the best place to look is in Andrew John Wiles’ proof of Fermat’s Last Theorem. These maths are far outside of my skill set, and always will be. Even so, after dozens of readings, I have gleaned insights from them.

 

To find a direct proof for irrational numbers could lead to maths that close the gaps on Cantor’s Alephs of infinites. Considering there are more irrational numbers than integers, the value of this proof may be enormous. Adding to this, Wiles’ proof includes proofs of the Modularity Theorem for semistable elliptic curves, with these kinds of proofs, all three of Georg Cantor’s infinites may converge. Wiles’ proof seems like an excellent place to start.

 

Noting the post on Fermat, there is one question that remains about Fermat’s Last Theorem: Did Fermat really have the remarkable proof he wrote of in the margin of his book? Considering it took advanced, late twentieth century mathematics to solve it, I seriously doubt it. However, it is an intriguing thought that seventeenth century math may hold a solution.

 

This forum is great. The mathematicians who visit and especially the ones who live here are truly extraordinary.

 

Thank you Melody and CPhill!

 

 

~~D~~

Sep 2, 2014
Sep 1, 2014

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