nchang

No problem! :)

Thank you!

This might help! https://www.khanacademy.org/science/ap-physics-1/ap-one-dimensional-motion/average-and-instantaneous-acceleration/v/acceleration

I think you can use the acceleration formula! You can do some research because that is how we learn! (There are great lessons about it on khan academy, not an advert). :)

I think if you are using a mac, then there is an option key. :)

if 40% is 80 pi, then 100% (or the whole lap) is 80pi*100/40=200pi; because the circumference is pi * diameter, the diameter is 200pi/pi=200 meters

I think that would be your opinion! :)

Thank you!

Yeah, but that had the wrong answer cal.

I am sorry, but that is the wrong answer