Dragonlance

Guest is full of mule muffins.

d is the dollar and q is the quarter

 d + 0.25q = 153

 q+143 =d  

 q + 143 + 0.25q = 153

14300 + 100q + 25q =15300  |*100

125q = 1000

 q=8

And 8 +143 = 151

 d=151

I write this before Heureka post his answer. It take a long time to get a logon screen.

Anyway I look over Heureka’s answer and it will take some time to study it, but my answer still seem like it is correct so I am posting it.

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The question DOSE NOT essentially ask how many combinations you can place the numbers in.

The question asks how many combinations you can place the numbers in where the number is either greater than or less than the ones before it. The only way a number can’t be greater than or less than the numbers before it is if the number is repeated.

So the question is how many combinations can you make without repeating a number. 

That is 9*8*7*6*5*4*3*2*1 = 362,880 ways,

Where do you get the 40% more from?

The last time I checked 8 was 66.66...% more than 12.  

This is called conservation of momentum

Mass * velocity  =   momentum

Solve it like this

m1 * v1 = m2 * v2

0.010kg x 500m/s = 70kg * v2

(0.010*500)/70 =0.0714

The final speed of the man is 0.0714 m/s

Height of Joe’s eyes divided by the distance from the mirror equals the height of the tower divided by the distance to mirror.

H/D = h/d

H/60 = 6/7.5

H= (6/7.5)*60

H= 48

The tower is 48 feet high. 

Solveit, you give the correct answer but this is how you can do it

$\text {Factors of 924 = } (2^2, 3, 7, 11)\\ \text {Factors of 1932 = } (2^2, 3, 7, 23)\\ \text {Unique factors (11, 23)}\\ \text {Reduced fraction } \dfrac{11}{23}$

Guest you are more full of dung than a constipated hog!

Asiuns’ answer is fine. No one can tell from the question if it hours or minutes, or a ratio.

I speak English (sort of) and I would not use a minus sign to mean “to” or elapsed time for that type of question.

Maybe in Anol Retentive -constipated hog,  English you use it. :/

He cant stay on one post because he is BatShit-Stupid! :/

Da da da da da da da da BATSHIT!!!!

STUPID!!!

Da da da da da da da da BATSHIT!!!!

STUPID!!!!

Is this a joke?

If you have 30,000 peeps they are not rare unless you are talking about how they are cooked. If you really are talking about pepes, then they definitely are not rare. There are just too many dicks around for any of them to be rare.

You will get 88% of the money. You probably won’t hear a peep more from us until you say how much you want to sell them for.

Sorry. I meant to write it as

1W = 1 Joule second^-1

1W = 1 Joule second

!W = 1 volt ampere

Why do you ask so many of these questions like you are playing a braindead game?

You do not preface the questions. You can look a lot of these up anyway.

Now that you know the answer what are you going to do with it?

If you need advice I can tell you where to store it for when you need it. It is the same place it came from when you ask it.  :/

You might be user101 but most of us will not let you use us like we are your toy robots.

So this is the last of your questions I will answer unless you act like you give more than a damnn about  it.

This is easy to do and it is very cool how it works.

Force here is what converts the kinetic energy to heat by friction and slows the puck

fu  = coefficient of Kinetic friction

g = is the acceleration of gravity

Fu*g = a.

So friction force on the puck is the acceleration of gravity times the coefficient of kinetic friction and the acceleration force is made negative here because it is slowing down the puck. .

Puck friction to negative acceleration

fu=0.05

g = -9.81m/s^2

so

a = 0.05 * -9.81m/s^2 = -0.4905 m/s^2

For the moving puck

Velocity = v = u + (a*t) | u=initial velocity

So

Time = t = (v-u)/a

Distance = d = t *(v + u)/2

So

Distance d= ((v-u)/a) * ((v+u)/2)

This becomes d = (v-u)(v+u)/2a

Plugging in the numbers

d= (0 - 5.3)(0 + 5.3)/(2*-0.49.5) =28.63 meters

This is very slippery ice.

25 Lbs to 3.25 Lbs

The chef must be serving jerky.  Really dry jerky. 

I went into a breakfast grill once and asked the chef for raw eggs with burnt bacon and a cup of weak and cold coffee.  The chef say he cannot serve me that. I ask him why not, you did the last time I was in here. hahaha

Well if she trusts her doctor’s advice then 40 8-oz glasses.

Ella probably should find a new doctor.  :/

Well guest #4 I will tell you right now Alan not over do it at all!

Yesterday when I see this question I think ok it is proportionality and I do it and get the same answer as guest #2

Then I think what if it is a different base?

I play with it for an hour or so but I not figure out how to do it, except by stepping through different base numbers on a calculator site that do base conversions and I still not really figure it out.

Now when I see Alan’s answer I have a better idea how to do this.

So Alan did not over do it.  Just because he think outside the box of elementary maths do not mean it is lost on everyone who read it. Even some of us dumb kids get it.

So Guest #4 STFU!!!!!!!!!!!!

OK I make 2 mistakes

I put 46 instead of 44 for the leftover cards (I left the jokers in hahaha)

I add instead of multiplying the combinations going across.

After fixing these mistakes I get this which is the same as your answer :)

NCR(4,3) * NCR(4,1)  =  16

NCR(4,2) * NCR(4,2) =  36

NCR(4,1) * NCR(4,3) =   16                           

NCR(4,2) * NCR(4,1) * NCR(44,1)  =   1056

NCR(4,1) * NCR(4,2) * NCR(44,1)  =   1056

NCR(4,1) * NCR(4,1) * NCR(44,2)  = 15136

16+36+16+1056+1056+15136 = 17316

Thank you Miss Melody.

To do this you have to add a lot of combinations

To have at least mean you can have more so you have to add up all the combinations where you have exact amounts. 

Start with only aces and kings

There are 4 aces and 4 kings to select from. 

There are

4C3 + 4C1 to draw 3 aces and 1 king.

4C2 + 4C2 to draw 2 aces and 2 kings

4C1 + 4C3 to draw 1 aces and 3 kings

Then do this with the other 46 cards

4C2 + 4C1 + 46C1 to draw 2 aces and 1 king and 1 of something else. 

4C1 + 4C2 + 46C1 to draw 1 ace and 2 kings and 1 of something else. 

4C1 + 4C1 + 46C2 to draw 1 ace and 1 king and 2 of something else. 

Add all these up to get the total number of ways you can draw 4 cards with at least 1 ace and 1 king.

On the site calc use this nCr(4, 3) for 4C3

One of moderators should check that I not make a mistake. Maybe there is a easier way to do this too.

That work out ok Lavern because I had a answer but I not remember it. hahaha