MaxWong

Pyth. Thm. :

a^2 + b^2 = c^2

where c is the hypotenuse and a, b are the 2 other sides respectively

pi, times (radius squared), which is known as πr^2

I suppose m, o, d and n are all variables.

then it equals to 1

which is approximately -0.0287267.......

(π x 0.16252 x 3) – (π 0.1592 x 3.12)

= 0.48756π - 0.496704π

= -0.009144π

1000000000000*100000000000000

= 1E12 * 1E14

= 1E(12+14)

= 1E26

which is 100 000 000 000 000 000 000 000 000.

I saw it just right before I saw your msg here

log base 1 of 1 can be any number you like 

It is because:

Let x be the ans of log base 1 of 1

\(log_11=x \)

\(1^x = 1\)

Therefore x takes infinitely many values

LOL.

Actually, (8, -4) also works 

Let's name (0.2x+0.7y = 8) as (1) and (4x-25= -0.5y) as (2)

From (1),

0.2x = 8 - 0.7y

x = 5(8- .7y) = 40 - 3.5y ------ (3)

Substitute (3) into (2),

4(40 - 3.5y) - 25 = -0.5y

160 - 14y - 25 = -0.5y

135 = 14y - 0.5y = 13.5y

y = 10 ------(4)

Substitute (4) into (1)

0.2x = 8 - (0.7)(10) = 8 - 7 = 1

x = 1(5) = 5

Therefore x=5 , y=10