Melody

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UsernameMelody
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Melody  Feb 11, 2022
 #4
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Feb 16, 2017
 #5
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Feb 16, 2017
 #1
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Hi HSC

That is because this integral does not converge.

 

\(\int_{2}^{\infty} \frac{1}{2n-1}dn\\ =\left[\frac{ln(2n-1)}{2}\right]_2^\infty\\ =\left[\frac{ln(2n-1)}{2}\right]_2^\infty\\ =\infty-\frac{ln3}{2}\\ =\infty\)

 

back up by wolfram|alpha

https://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=integra+of+1%2F(2x-1)dx+from+x%3D2+to+x%3Dinfty

 

I was surprised by this because here is the graph...

 

The area of the green section represents the integral.... it looks like it converges doesn't it....

 

Maybe Heureka or Alan or some other person might like to comment ://

 

Feb 15, 2017