+0  
 
0
151
4
avatar+74 

Should 0be 0 or 1? 

 

This has always been a strong frustration source for me.

Beary  May 8, 2018
 #1
avatar+942 
+2

hi beary!

 

if you ask the calculator, it says it is zero.

 

however, the alternating sum of binomial coefficients from the n-th row of Pascal's triangle is what you obtain by expanding (1-1)^n using the binomial theorem, i.e., 0n.

 

 But the alternating sum of the entries of every row except the top row is 0, since 0^k=0 for all k greater than 1.

 

But the top row of Pascal's triangle contains a single 1, so its alternating sum is 1, which supports the notion that (1-1)^0=0^0 if it were defined, should be 1.

 

so therefore 0^0 is zero.

 

i hope this helped,

 

gavin

GYanggg  May 8, 2018
 #2
avatar+88871 
+3

00  is an indeterminant form...here's why ...

 

Note...if we let n be any real number...we have

 

00  =  0 n-n  =  0n  / 0  =    0  / 0

 

But also note that    0  / 0   =  pi        or  0 / 0    =  11   or   0 / 0  = e  ......  etc....

 

Thus....we  can't actually determine  the value  of  0n-n  = 0 

 

 

cool cool cool

CPhill  May 8, 2018
 #3
avatar+1357 
0

Its zero

IAmJeff  May 8, 2018

8 Online Users

New Privacy Policy

We use cookies to personalise content and advertisements and to analyse access to our website. Furthermore, our partners for online advertising receive information about your use of our website.
For more information: our cookie policy and privacy policy.