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avatar+138 

Not to sure how to go about solving this, any help?

 Apr 2, 2021

Best Answer 

 #1
avatar+32402 
+4

The mean of a binomial distribution is given by np

Tha variance of a binomial distribution is given by np(1-p)

 

Hence:  n*p = 2

             n*p*(1 - p) = 1.5

 

You now have two equations in two unknowns.  Can you take it from here?

 Apr 2, 2021
 #1
avatar+32402 
+4
Best Answer

The mean of a binomial distribution is given by np

Tha variance of a binomial distribution is given by np(1-p)

 

Hence:  n*p = 2

             n*p*(1 - p) = 1.5

 

You now have two equations in two unknowns.  Can you take it from here?

Alan Apr 2, 2021
 #2
avatar+121004 
0

Thanks , Alan  !!!!

 

 

cool cool cool

CPhill  Apr 2, 2021

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