If \(y=arctan(cos(x))\), then \(dy/dx\)=?
Please explain your answer. Thanks in advance!
There are formulas for this, but this is how I would do it:
\(y=arctan(m),\quad\;\; m=cos(x)\\ tan(y)=m\\ \frac{dm}{dy}=sec^2(y)\qquad \frac{dm}{dx}=-sin(x)\\~\\ \frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{dy}{dm}\cdot \frac{dm}{dx}\\ \frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{1}{sec^2y}\cdot -sin(x)\\ \frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{-sin(x)}{sec^2(arctan(cos(x))} \)
Again there are formulas but I used a series of right angled triangles to simplify the denominator.
And I came up with a denominator of \(1+ cos^2(x)\)
The problem with my method is that I will only guarantee if for angles in the first quadrant.
Since it is squared it probably does not matter.
(that is assuming I made no stupid errors)
So now I have.
\(\frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{-sin(x)}{1+cos^2(x)}\\ \text{Wolfram Alpha gives the asnwer as} \\ \frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{-2sin(x)}{3+cos(2x)}\\~\\ BUT\\ \text{These two answers are rearrangements of the same thing.} \)
LaTex:
y=arctan(m),\quad\;\; m=cos(x)\\
tan(y)=m\\
\frac{dm}{dy}=sec^2(y)\qquad \frac{dm}{dx}=-sin(x)\\~\\
\frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{dy}{dm}\cdot \frac{dm}{dx}\\
\frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{1}{sec^2y}\cdot -sin(x)\\
\frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{-sin(x)}{sec^2(arctan(cos(x))}