1) Beginning with a full cup of coffee, drink one-sixth of it.

2) Pour into the cup the same amount of milk as you have just drunk of the coffee

3) Now drink one-third of the mixture 

4) Pour into the cup the same amount of milk as you have just drunk of the mixture

5) Now drink one-half of the mixture in the cup

6) Pour into the cup the same amount of milk as you have just drunk of the mixture

7) Drink the whole cup of liquid

8) Have you had more milk or coffee? How much of each have you had?


Thanks for the help

waffles  May 14, 2018

The method I used was over complicated and easy to mess up. 


Simply view GingerAle’s post for the correct method and answer. 


Sorry for the inconvenience,



GYanggg  May 14, 2018
edited by GYanggg  May 15, 2018

Gavin, your post is a menagerie of atrocious logic and mathematics. I’m greatly tempted to troll you.


In these kinds of questions, it is important to calculate the total quantities poured into the cup. The solution is simple and straightforward.  The changing ratios are irrelevant for this question. (You didn’t calculate the ratios correctly either. Ex. In #3, the milk went from 1/3 to 1/9 just by drinking it. How can that happen in a homogenized mixture?).


This question starts with an 8 oz. cup of coffee. No more coffee is added to the cup.

Milk is added in increments of 1/6 cup, 1/3 cup, and 1/2 cup.  This totals to one (1) cup.

From this, it’s easy to tell that the drinker consumes one (1) cup of coffee and one (1) cup of milk. Equal amounts.   





GingerAle  May 15, 2018


waffles  May 14, 2018

Keep the coffee and milk separate as follows:


Just add up the milk you pour into the coffee at each stage, which is as follows:

1/6 + 1/3 + 1/2 = 1 full cup of milk which you poured into the coffee and eventually drank.

You drank the original full cup of coffee. So, in total, you drank:

1 full cup of coffee + 1 full cup of milk !!.

Guest May 15, 2018

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