This uses what is known as Leibnitz's rule for differentiation of integrals, which in its general form, where both limits are functions of the variable with respect to which everything is being differentiated, is:
In the original question here only the 2nd term on the RHS above is non-zero
.
How did you go from the first step to the second step Alan,
Is it magic ??
NOTE: much of mathematics is magic you know
Congratulations JewishNerd.
I think that you have taken ownership of the ugliest icon imaginable.
What is that thing?? LOL
( I hope it is not your pet cat. )
This uses what is known as Leibnitz's rule for differentiation of integrals, which in its general form, where both limits are functions of the variable with respect to which everything is being differentiated, is:
In the original question here only the 2nd term on the RHS above is non-zero
.