+0

# Domain and range of 80n-275

0
565
11
+154

Domain and range of 80n-275

sportslover  Jun 4, 2014

#1
+92763
+16

This is a linear equation.....I can substitute any real value in for "n" (the domain) and get back any real number (the range).

So, rhe domain and range is just (∞, ∞)

CPhill  Jun 4, 2014
#1
+92763
+16

This is a linear equation.....I can substitute any real value in for "n" (the domain) and get back any real number (the range).

So, rhe domain and range is just (∞, ∞)

CPhill  Jun 4, 2014
#2
+94114
+5

Hang on a minute.  how can this have a domain and range?

It is not an equation it doesn't even have a y value.

It is just an expression.

Maybe it is me that is wrong.  Can other mathematicians arbitrate please?

Melody  Jun 5, 2014
#3
+92763
0

Well...if we put in any real number for n...don't we get a real number back?? And since we can return any real number we want...that's what I was getting at.....the "y" is implied..

CPhill  Jun 5, 2014
#4
+92763
0

Sorry...I meant to type "function" rather than "equation".....I'll stand by the rest...

CPhill  Jun 5, 2014
#5
+94114
0

Yes maybe - I'm not sure.

I knew that is what the question was implying but I'd still like to know what other mathematicians think.

It is a lot better now that you have changed the word equation to function.  You are probably right.

Melody  Jun 6, 2014
#6
+27229
0

Yes, it's functions that have domains and ranges.

Alan  Jun 6, 2014
#7
+94114
+8

Yes I know functions and relations have domains and ranges but this has no equal sign.

Techically speaking - does it really have a domain and a range.  To me it is just an expression.

(I know an equal sign and a y or f(n) is implied BUT it is not really there!)

I know I am being padentic but mathematics is a padentic field of study!

Melody  Jun 7, 2014
#8
+92763
+5

Quiet, whippersnapper!!! Things are what we say they are !!!

I'll get you, my pretty...and your little dog, too!!

CPhill  Jun 7, 2014
#9
+94114
+8

It's when you are reduced to threats and witchcraft that I KNOW I am in the lead!!!!!

Melody  Jun 7, 2014
#10
+2353
0

Even though the function might not be defined in the sense of f(n) = 80n-275, it still maps R->R which even though it is an undefined function still has a domain and range. The question here is not whether or not this function has a domain and range, but rather whether it's a mathematical fallacy to have an undefined function.

reinout-g  Jun 7, 2014
#11
+92763
0

HAHAHA!!!!!.....I love that one, Melody!!!

But, still.......THE GREAT AND POWERFUL OZ HAS SPOKEN!!!! .....Now, bring me the broomstick of the Wicked Witch of the West!!!.....Go!!!   .....Go!!!

CPhill  Jun 7, 2014