This is a linear equation.....I can substitute any real value in for "n" (the domain) and get back any real number (the range).
So, rhe domain and range is just (∞, ∞)
Hang on a minute. how can this have a domain and range?
It is not an equation it doesn't even have a y value.
It is just an expression.
Maybe it is me that is wrong. Can other mathematicians arbitrate please?
Well...if we put in any real number for n...don't we get a real number back?? And since we can return any real number we want...that's what I was getting at.....the "y" is implied..
Sorry...I meant to type "function" rather than "equation".....I'll stand by the rest...
Yes maybe - I'm not sure.
I knew that is what the question was implying but I'd still like to know what other mathematicians think.
It is a lot better now that you have changed the word equation to function. You are probably right.
Yes I know functions and relations have domains and ranges but this has no equal sign.
Techically speaking - does it really have a domain and a range. To me it is just an expression.
(I know an equal sign and a y or f(n) is implied BUT it is not really there!)
I know I am being padentic but mathematics is a padentic field of study!
Quiet, whippersnapper!!! Things are what we say they are !!!
I'll get you, my pretty...and your little dog, too!!
It's when you are reduced to threats and witchcraft that I KNOW I am in the lead!!!!!
Even though the function might not be defined in the sense of f(n) = 80n-275, it still maps R->R which even though it is an undefined function still has a domain and range. The question here is not whether or not this function has a domain and range, but rather whether it's a mathematical fallacy to have an undefined function.