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+0  
 
0
134
7
avatar+701 

http://prntscr.com/lkwmrl

 Nov 20, 2018
 #1
avatar+701 
0

...Is this some trick question?

 

 Statement 8 is incorrect...It claims 2 = 1...

 

Besides, qeustions not related to math should be considered "off-topic"...

 Nov 20, 2018
 #2
avatar+626 
-1

I think he/she is "proving" that 2=1 but doesn't mean it.

CoolStuffYT  Nov 21, 2018
 #3
avatar+701 
0

Ok then...

PartialMathematician  Nov 21, 2018
 #4
avatar+99736 
+1

The fallacy is the transition from Step 4 to Step 5

 

4    (a + b) ( a - b)   = b ( a - b)

 

But if   a   = b.....then we have

 

5   (a + b) ( 0)  = b ( 0) 

 

So....6   becomes

 

0    =    0         which is the logical conclusion, not    " a + a   =   a "

 

 

cool cool cool

 Nov 21, 2018
 #5
avatar+701 
0

What if \(a=b=0\)?

PartialMathematician  Nov 21, 2018
 #6
avatar+701 
0

If \(a=b=0\), technically 0 + 0 = 0 is correct, and (0+0)(0-0) does equal 0(0-0). 

PartialMathematician  Nov 21, 2018
 #7
avatar+701 
0

The major fallacy is still 2 = 1. 

PartialMathematician  Nov 21, 2018

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