+129839 A constant function doesn't have an inverse. To see why, note that if we have a function such as y = a, then it isn't one-to-one, because an infinite number of x values produce the same y value (namely, "a"). And x = a can never have an inverse, because this is a vertical line - which doesn't meet the criteria of a "function." (It fails the vertical line test at x = a.)
That's my take on this one........
+118653 Let me see
the inverse of x=1 would be y=1
The inverse of y=1 is x=1
So if the inverse of g(x) is 1 then I suppose g(x) can be anything in the domain of x=1
Umm
$$g(x)=k\qquad where\; k\in R \qquad and\;x=1$$
I definitely invite others to comment on this one. 
+129839 A constant function doesn't have an inverse. To see why, note that if we have a function such as y = a, then it isn't one-to-one, because an infinite number of x values produce the same y value (namely, "a"). And x = a can never have an inverse, because this is a vertical line - which doesn't meet the criteria of a "function." (It fails the vertical line test at x = a.)
That's my take on this one........
