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Let \(f(n) = \begin{cases} n^2+1 & \text{if }n\text{ is odd} \\ \dfrac{n}{2} & \text{if }n\text{ is even} \end{cases}.\)

For how many integers \(n\) from 1 to 100, inclusive, does \(f ( f (\dotsb f (n) \dotsb )) = 1\) for some number of applications of \(f\)?

 Apr 8, 2021
 #1
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Hey there, Floccinaucini!

 

This problem has already been answered here: https://web2.0calc.com/questions/let-for-how-many-integers-n-from-1-to-100-inclusive

 

Hope this helped!

( ゚д゚)つ Bye

 Apr 8, 2021
 #2
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That answer is incorrect?

 Apr 8, 2021

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