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find

(1000)(1001)+(1002)+(100100).

 Aug 15, 2023
 #1
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This expression can be simplified using the Binomial Theorem. According to the Binomial Theorem, we have:

(xy)100=(1000)x100y0+(1001)x99y1+(1002)x98y2++(100100)x0y100.

Notice that your expression corresponds to the expansion of (x+y)100:

(1000)x100y0(1001)x99y1+(1002)x98y2+(100100)x0y100.

So, if we let x=1 and y=1, we obtain:

(1+1)100=2100.

Therefore, the value of the given expression is 2100.

 Aug 16, 2023
 #3
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Deleted ...............

Guest Aug 16, 2023
edited by Guest  Aug 16, 2023
edited by Guest  Aug 16, 2023
 #4
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∑[ (-1)^n * bin(100, n), n,  0,  100 ]==0

 Aug 16, 2023
 #5
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The alternating sum or difference of binomial coefficients is 0, which is a fact I already knew. However, I was curious why this happens every time, so I decided to do some summation algebra to prove the result. If you are confused at any step, I can explain some steps more, but I added light commentary where I saw fit.

 

ni=0(1)i(ni)=(1)0(n0)+(1)n(nn)+n1i=1(1)i(ni)=1+(1)n+n1i=1(1)i[(n1i1)+(n1i)]by Pascal's Rule=1+(1)n+n1i=1(1)i(n1i1)+(1)i(n1i)

 

You might wonder why I did all of this. After all, it looks like I am making the expression more complicated. However, I will use the power of a telescoping sum to simplify this monstrosity further. I apologize that I am not experienced enough with LaTeX to make this look more visually appealing.

 

n1i=1(1)i(n1i1)+(1)i(n1i)i=1:(1)(n10)+(1)(n11)i=2:+(1)(n11)+(1)(n12)i=3:+(1)(n12)+(1)(n13)

 

This makes it clear that the summation will collapse to the first and last term of the summation.

 

n1i=1(1)i(n1i1)+(1)i(n1i)=(1)1(n10)+(1)n1(n1n1)=1+(1)n1

 

Now, we put this information together and see to what the original sum evaluates.

 

ni=0(1)i(ni)=1+(1)n1+(1)n1=(1)n+(1)n1=(1)n(11)=0

 

This concludes the proof and proves that the alternating sum or difference of binomial coefficients is 0.

 Aug 16, 2023

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