This expression can be simplified using the Binomial Theorem. According to the Binomial Theorem, we have:
(x−y)100=(1000)x100y0+(1001)x99y1+(1002)x98y2+⋯+(100100)x0y100.
Notice that your expression corresponds to the expansion of (x+y)100:
(1000)x100y0−(1001)x99y1+(1002)x98y2−⋯+(100100)x0y100.
So, if we let x=1 and y=1, we obtain:
(1+1)100=2100.
Therefore, the value of the given expression is 2100.
The alternating sum or difference of binomial coefficients is 0, which is a fact I already knew. However, I was curious why this happens every time, so I decided to do some summation algebra to prove the result. If you are confused at any step, I can explain some steps more, but I added light commentary where I saw fit.
n∑i=0(−1)i(ni)=(−1)0(n0)+(−1)n(nn)+n−1∑i=1(−1)i(ni)=1+(−1)n+n−1∑i=1(−1)i[(n−1i−1)+(n−1i)]by Pascal's Rule=1+(−1)n+n−1∑i=1(−1)i(n−1i−1)+(−1)i(n−1i)
You might wonder why I did all of this. After all, it looks like I am making the expression more complicated. However, I will use the power of a telescoping sum to simplify this monstrosity further. I apologize that I am not experienced enough with LaTeX to make this look more visually appealing.
∑n−1i=1(−1)i(n−1i−1)+(−1)i(n−1i)i=1:(−1)(n−10)+(−1)(n−11)i=2:+(1)(n−11)+(1)(n−12)i=3:+(−1)(n−12)+(−1)(n−13)⋯
This makes it clear that the summation will collapse to the first and last term of the summation.
n−1∑i=1(−1)i(n−1i−1)+(−1)i(n−1i)=(−1)1(n−10)+(−1)n−1(n−1n−1)=−1+(−1)n−1
Now, we put this information together and see to what the original sum evaluates.
n∑i=0(−1)i(ni)=1+(−1)n−1+(−1)n−1=(−1)n+(−1)n−1=(−1)n(1−1)=0
This concludes the proof and proves that the alternating sum or difference of binomial coefficients is 0.