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Let f(n) = n^2 + 1 if n is odd. Let f(n) = n/2 if n is even.

 

For how many integers n from 1 to 100, inclusive, does f(f(... f(n)...)) = 1 for some number of applications of f?

 May 9, 2020
 #1
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All of them!

 

This is (part of) the Collatz conjecture.

 May 9, 2020
edited by Alan  May 9, 2020
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alan i think this is incorrect, the collatz conjecture is for 3n+1 not n^2+1, the only numbers that get to 1 are powers of 2 all other numbers b**w up to infinity

Guest May 9, 2020
 #3
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Oops!  You are quite right.  My mistake.  I should have given it more thought instead of jumping to a quick conclusion.

Alan  May 10, 2020
edited by Alan  May 10, 2020
 #4
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I am confused. What would be the possible answers?

Guest May 11, 2020

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