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avatar+2533 

why \(\frac10\) is not infinity ?

 Apr 11, 2016
 #1
avatar+56 
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Because calculators are dumb.

 Apr 11, 2016
 #2
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Maybe it is!!!??? Consider this:

1/.1=10

1/.01=100

1/.001=1,000

.

.

.

1/0.000000000001=1,000,000,000,000, and so on....etc.

Now, you can see the pattern. The closer the denominator gets to "0", the greater the quotient becomes. From this you can argue, with some logic, that IFF you divided by zero itself, your quotient would become infinitely large!!!.

Some food for thought!!!.

 Apr 11, 2016
 #3
avatar+2533 
0

actually there is easier way to think about it when we devide 10 to 5 is 2 if we will change the question how many times does 10 include 5 the answer is still 2 .So how many times does 1 include 0 infinetly many times . But there is problem with the negative numbers .(i know that i am wrong but i wanna to argue and to make it clear for myself :D)

Solveit  Apr 11, 2016
 #4
avatar+2 
0

Well because if 1/0=infinity

then 2/0=infinity

then 1/0=infinity=2/0

that means 1/0=2/0 which is just wrong

 

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=BRRolKTlF6Q

 Apr 12, 2016

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