#2**0 **

Maybe it is!!!??? Consider this:

1/.1=10

1/.01=100

1/.001=1,000

.

.

.

1/0.000000000001=1,000,000,000,000, and so on....etc.

Now, you can see the pattern. The closer the denominator gets to "0", the greater the quotient becomes. From this you can argue, with some logic, that __ IFF__ you divided by zero itself, your quotient would become infinitely large!!!.

Some food for thought!!!.

Guest Apr 11, 2016

#3**0 **

actually there is easier way to think about it when we devide 10 to 5 is 2 if we will change the question how many times does 10 include 5 the answer is still 2 .So how many times does 1 include 0 infinetly many times . But there is problem with the negative numbers .(i know that i am wrong but i wanna to argue and to make it clear for myself :D)

Solveit
Apr 11, 2016

#4**0 **

Well because if 1/0=infinity

then 2/0=infinity

then 1/0=infinity=2/0

that means 1/0=2/0 which is just wrong

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=BRRolKTlF6Q

RigorousDRIVER Apr 12, 2016