(a) Let \( f : (-\infty,0) \cup (0,\infty) \to \mathbb{R}\) be defined by \(f(x) = x - \frac{1}{x}.\)
Show that \(f \) has no inverse function.
(b) Let \( g : (0,\infty) \to \mathbb{R}\) be defined by \(g(x) = x - \frac{1}{x}.\)
Show that \(g\) has an inverse function.
i understand how to do a but im kinda having trubble with fuguring out b
thanks for any help
