+0

im generally confused for this problem plz help

0
38
3

(a) Let $$f : (-\infty,0) \cup (0,\infty) \to \mathbb{R}$$ be defined by $$f(x) = x - \frac{1}{x}.$$
Show that $$f$$ has no inverse function.

(b) Let  $$g : (0,\infty) \to \mathbb{R}$$ be defined by $$g(x) = x - \frac{1}{x}.$$
Show that $$g$$ has an inverse function.

i understand how to do a but im kinda having trubble with fuguring out b

thanks for any help

Mar 27, 2021
edited by Guest  Mar 27, 2021

#1
-1

This is so easy!  Just graph the function, and use the Horizontal Line Test.

Mar 27, 2021
#2
+2

That just proves it's not a quadratic? How does it prove anything else

Guest Mar 27, 2021
#3
+315
0

You need to tell them how you got the answer and what it is :P

wolfiechan  Mar 28, 2021