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# In average there is one defect per 100 m of magnetic tape. (a) What is the probability that 150 m of tape have no defect? (b) Given that the

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In average there is one defect per 100 m of magnetic tape. (a) What is the probability that 150 m of tape have no defect? (b) Given that the first 100 m of tape had no defect what is the probability that the whole 150 m have no defect? (c) Given that the first 100 m of tape had at least one defect what is the probability that the whole 150 m have exactly two defects?

Mar 21, 2015

#3
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.

Mar 21, 2015

#1
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I do not know how to get the initial probabiliy for this one.  Can anyone help?

Mar 21, 2015
#2
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Try using the Poisson distribution Melody.

The probability of exactly k defects/unit interval, given an average of λ defects/unit interval is given by:

$$p(k;\lambda)=\frac{\lambda^ke^{-\lambda}}{k!}$$

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Mar 21, 2015
#3
+33151
+5