#2**+11 **

Well, it is probably zero but (It is not) someone else should give their thoughts on the matter.

DavidQD you are on the forum - what do you think?

Melody
May 10, 2014

#3**+17 **

Best Answer

I would say it is "aleph null" or undefined, unless the infinities are explicitly defined as countable, but I'll ask Georg Cantor.

DavidQD
May 10, 2014

#4**+8 **

On first blush, we might consider the answer to be "0.'

But, it's not.....

Consider the set of integers on the number line. You will agree - I hope - that this set is infinite. Now, consider the set of * even* integers on the number line. Again, we'll consider this set to be infinite, too.

So, subtracting the second "infinity" from the first "infinity," we end up with another infinite set - the set of all * odd* integers !!

Thus, ∞ - ∞ = ∞

Also, notice another odd property......I've divided one set in half and gotten another infinite set. Thus....

∞ / 2 = ∞

One more interesting idea, and then I'll shut up. Which "infinity" is "greater?" The set of all positive integers, or the set of all positive even integers??

Note, that I can "count" each positive even integer.....For example, 2 is the first one, 4 is the second one, etc. Thus, I can put each positive even integer into a one-to-one correspondence with a "counting" number. And since I can do so, then the set of positive even integers must be just as large as the set of all the positive integers !!!

CPhill
May 10, 2014

#7**+12 **

There is a post on here titled

A Method of Statistical Inference on Two-dimensional Object Ratios

It broaches infinities – it is a brilliant peace of work.

DavidQD
May 10, 2014

#8**+3 **

Thanks Chris and David and thank you Anana for you good manners.

If you give the answers you like a thumbs up you can give them lots of points! You have the POWER!

Melody
May 10, 2014

#10