It looks like you want to find the inverse of f(x)...(not the "inverse derivative" )....this one is not easy.....
WolframAlpha gives the inverse as....
To evaluate f-1(3).....we can evaluate f(x) where y= 3
So
3 = (x^3)/4 +x - 1 .... when x =2 .....see this graph......https://www.desmos.com/calculator/qshuoxun0d
So, if (2, 3) is on f(x) then (3, 2) is on the inverse.....thus f-1(3) = 2
Well Chris, what you have done looks all very impressive but I'm going to have a go at it myself.
I am treading on shaky ground here so if another mathematicians wants to correct me I shall not be too surprise.
let f(x)= (14×x3)+x−1, solve for (f^-1)'(3).
y=(0.25)x3+x−1$inversefunction$x=(0.25)y3+y−1dxdy−1=0.75y2+1dy−1dx=10.75y2+1
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x=(0.25)y3+y−1Whenx=33=0.25∗y3+y−10=0.25y3+y−4
http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=0%3D0.25y^3%2By-4
The only real solution to this is y=2
dy−1dx=10.75y2+1Sowhenx=3,y=2Whenx=3dy−1dx=10.75∗4+1Whenx=3dy−1dx=14
The normal interpretation of "inverse function" doesn't mean simply replace the x's by y's and the y's by x's. It means if, say, f(x) = y, then f-1(y) = x.
So, to get the (real) inverse to y = x3/4 + x - 1 we need to solve for x in terms of y (taking the only real solution), and then switch x and y values. We get y = the expression given by Chris.
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You have said this before i think Alan but my answer is the same as Chris's and I have found the derivative as requested.
Can you give me an example of where my way would give a false answer?
I am assuming that all valid answers that I find are good but that sometimes my answer might not be valid.
I'll see if I can answer my own question
y=√x−1y≥−1,x≥0myway$inversefunction$x=√y−1x≥−1,y≥0y=(x+1)2x≥−1,y≥0
What is wrong with that? How should I do it ??