Loading [MathJax]/jax/output/SVG/jax.js
 
+0  
 
0
1229
1
avatar+87 

(a) Let f(x):(,0)(0,)R be defined by f(x)=x1x.
Show that f(x) has no inverse function.

(b) Let g(x):(0,)R be defined by g(x)=x1x.
Show that g(x) has an inverse function.

 Nov 2, 2020
 #1
avatar
0

If you graph y = x - 1/x, then it clearly fails the Horizontal Line Test over all real numbers, so f is not invertible.  But if you restrict to positive real numbers, then it passes the Horizontal LIne Test, so g is invertible.

 

 Nov 2, 2020

0 Online Users