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How is domain of the function f(x)=cosx restricted so that its inverse function exists? Drag a value or interval into each box to correctly complete the statements.

The domain of f(x)=cosx is restricted to _____so that the inverse of the function exists. This means that all functional values of f(x)=cos^(−1)x are on the interval _____ .

 

(-π/2,π/2) [-π/2,π/2] (0,π) [0,π] (0,2π) [0,2π]

 Mar 6, 2020
 #1
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(-π/2,π/2) [-π/2,π/2] (0,π) [0,π] (0,2π) [0,2π]

 

[1, +inf)                 I think.....all of the other intervals listed would have a cos x  value  of zero included which would result in a zero denominator.

 Mar 6, 2020
 #2
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Wait would the domain be restricted to  [0,pi] and the interval would be (-pi/2,pi/2)?

Guest Mar 7, 2020

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