How is domain of the function f(x)=cosx restricted so that its inverse function exists? Drag a value or interval into each box to correctly complete the statements.

The domain of f(x)=cosx is restricted to _____so that the inverse of the function exists. This means that all functional values of f(x)=cos^(−1)x are on the interval _____ .

(-π/2,π/2) [-π/2,π/2] (0,π) [0,π] (0,2π) [0,2π]

Guest Mar 6, 2020

#1**0 **

(-π/2,π/2) [-π/2,π/2] (0,π) [0,π] (0,2π) [0,2π]

[1, +inf) I think.....all of the other intervals listed would have a cos x value of zero included which would result in a zero denominator.

ElectricPavlov Mar 6, 2020