+0  
 
0
396
1
avatar

of 80% in her first three exams.
She then had 94% on her next exam.
Celia stated that her overall mean mark was 87% because the
mean of 80 and 94 is 87. Is Celia’s reasoning correct? Explain.

 Oct 21, 2021
 #1
avatar+678 
0

Hello Guest,

 

(correction: Celia got 80% in her first three exams.)

 

Her reasoning is wrong because it would be right if she has written

one exam, this would be \(\frac{80+94}{2}\), which is 87%, but there are three

exams and not just one. So it equals: \(\frac{80+80+80+94}{4}\), which is 83.5%.

So her overall mark is no 87%, but it is 83.5%. It applies:

 

\(\frac{Sum\ of\ values }{Number\ of\ values}\) and that is the overall mark formula.

 

Straight

 Oct 21, 2021

0 Online Users