(a) Let the domain of f be all reals numbers, be defined by f(x) = x - 1/x. Show that f has no inverse function WITHOUT GRAPHING/USING THE HORIZONTAL LINE TEST.

(b) Let the domain of g be (0, inf), be defined by g(x) = x - 1/x. Show that g has an inverse function WITHOUT GRAPHING.

PLEASE HELP ASAP! THANKS!

Guest May 9, 2021