Polynom Sorcery(urgent)

Oh - I think the light just came on.  You mean on the bottom of the fraction. :)

think about it Vraces.

You have  $${\frac{{\mathtt{4}}}{{\mathtt{5}}}}$$    of a cake and you eat  $${\frac{{\mathtt{1}}}{{\mathtt{5}}}}$$   

 Now you have     $${\frac{{\mathtt{4}}}{{\mathtt{5}}}}{\mathtt{\,-\,}}{\frac{{\mathtt{1}}}{{\mathtt{5}}}}$$     left.      So you have 3 bits left out of the original 5.  You now have $${\frac{{\mathtt{3}}}{{\mathtt{5}}}}$$ of a cake.

so

$${\frac{{\mathtt{4}}}{{\mathtt{5}}}}{\mathtt{\,-\,}}{\frac{{\mathtt{1}}}{{\mathtt{5}}}} = {\frac{{\mathtt{3}}}{{\mathtt{5}}}}$$        of the cake left.    See - the bottom stays the same.

Does that help?

Hi vraces

it is great to see you again.

is that first line the original question?

I am on my phone so presentation is difficult.

You just need a common denominator so multiply the first fraction by 2 ovér 2

=(2(p+1)^2-(p-1)^2)/4

=(2(p^2+2p+1)-(p^2-2p+1))/4

=(2p^2+4p+2-p^2+2p-1)/4

=(p^2+6p+1)/4

I am just presenting it properly now I am on my computer :)

$$\\=\frac{2(p+1)^2-(p-1)^2}{4}\\\\
=\frac{2(p^2+2p+1)-(p^2-2p+1)}{4}\\\\
=\frac{2p^2+4p+2-p^2+2p-1}{4}\\\\
=\frac{p^2+6p+1}{4}$$

But how does 4 - 4  = 4. Can you explain what this means in the magic land of math?

Hi Vraces :))

Your answer lines do not make sense.  That is why I redid it from the first line.

obviously 4-4 does not equal 4 but where to you think it says that this is true?

I am a bit confused Vraces