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Question: Let {an}n=0 be a sequence of positive real numbers. Prove that if n=0an converges, then so does n=0anr, where r is a positive integer.

 

What I have tried:

I know that if  n=0an converges, it means that {an} goes to 0, which is important because it tell us that when an is less than 1, anr is also less than 1. 

Also, the fact that an approaches 0 as n approaches infinity allows us to conclude that there exists a positive integer N for which an<1 for all nN, meaning that anr is also less than 1. 

 

 

Not sure what to do from here, though. :(

 Jun 27, 2022
 #1
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This is so EZ.  Just use the nth term test.

 Jun 27, 2022
 #2
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I am also having the same Issue. Did you get any solution?

 

 

 

 

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 Jun 28, 2022

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