I'm the person that was asking about FT a few weeks ago. I completely understand DFT now, but my paper is on FT, and I thought I can derive FT from DFT.
I am aware DFT can be expressed as:
\(X_k=\sum_{n=0}^{N-1}{x_n}\cos{\Big(\frac{2{\pi}kn}{N}\Big)} - i\sum_{n=0}^{N-1}{x_n}\sin{\Big(\frac{2{\pi}kn}{N}\Big)}\)
Using Euler's theorem. Comparing the actual definitions of FT and DFT, I would think that FT is just DFT with an "infinite" sampling rate. This would change the summation to an integral (I'm right about this?), but... the frequency k/N would approach 0? Why would this work out?
