+0  
 
-1
244
3
avatar+9 

\(\boxed{ζ(s)=\sum_{k=1}^{∞}\frac{1}{k^s}}\)
Applying the analytic continuation of \(ζ(s)\) over all complex numbers, define \(n\) as all values of \(ζ(s)\) that equal \(0\)

 

All values of \(n\) that exhibit the property \(Im(n)≠0\) are such that \(Re(n)=\frac{1}{2}\). Is this claim true? If so, prove it, and if not, present a counter-example.

 Sep 6, 2022
 #1
avatar+33661 
+1

This is the Riemann hypothesis and no mathematician has yet either proven or disproved it!

 Sep 6, 2022
 #2
avatar+9 
0

My friend said I would get a million dollars if I solved it.

SundriedFrog  Sep 6, 2022
 #3
avatar+33661 
0

Correct!  Search for the Clay Institute Millenium problems for the details.

Alan  Sep 7, 2022

3 Online Users