+0  
 
0
46
2
avatar+75 

Let f(x) be a function which contains 2 in its domain and range. Suppose that f(f(x))*(1+(f(x)) = -f(x) for all numbers x in the domain of f(x).

 

Thank you for your help.

thess  Oct 16, 2018
 #1
avatar+2758 
+1

I did two of these for you... from what class are you getting these questions?

 

I was able to see the trick in the first two but this one seems truly complicated.

 

Is your class teaching any strategies for dealing with these?

Rom  Oct 18, 2018
 #2
avatar+93866 
+1

How about this.

 

\(f(f(x))*(1+(f(x)) = -f(x)\\ so\\ f(f(2))*(1+(f(2)) = -f(2)\\ let\;\;\; f(2)=k\\ f(k)*(1+k) = -k\\ f(k)= \frac{-k}{1+k}\\ \)

 

This has to work for all the other values in the domain as well so I will replace k with x

 

\(f(x)= \frac{-x}{1+x}\\\)

 

 

This contains 2 in its range as well as its domain.

 

Melody  Oct 18, 2018

33 Online Users

avatar
avatar
avatar

New Privacy Policy

We use cookies to personalise content and advertisements and to analyse access to our website. Furthermore, our partners for online advertising receive information about your use of our website.
For more information: our cookie policy and privacy policy.