This question made me think 
$$\\cos\;\frac{\pi}{2}=0,\qquad cos\;\frac{-\pi}{2}=0,\qquad and \qquad f(0)=0\\\\$$
Now since g(x)=f(x)*cosx it follows that g(x)=0 when x = -pi/2, 0 or pi/2
Hence g(x) must be at least one turning point between -pi/2 and 0 and at least one between 0 and pi/2
If you are not sure about this, plot the 3 points and think about what the graph will have to look like.
NOW when g(x) turns the gradient of the tangent must be 0 SO g'(x)=0
HENCE
1 and 3 must both be correct.