Hi Sabi,
Yes i guess I missed a couple of steps, :)
$$\frac{(1-x)}{(x-2)}>0$$
FIRST: I must state that x-2 cannot be zero so x cannot equal 2
Now I am allowed to multiply both sides by whatever I want and in so doing I will cancel the denpominator out.
If this was an equation (not an inequality) then I would multiply both sides by (x-2) BUT that causes some problems here because x-2 could be negative or positive.
It would make life easier if we multiply by something that HAS to be positive.
So I multiplied by $$(x-2)^2$$
$$\\\frac{(1-x)}{(x-2)}\times \frac{(x-2)^2}{1}>0\times \frac{(x-2)^2}{1}\\\\
\frac{(1-x)}{1}\times \frac{(x-2)}{1}>0\\\\
\frac{(1-x)(x-2)}{1}>0\\\\
(1-x)(x-2)>0$$
Now the rest is the same as before :)
If you need more explanation - just ask :)
$$\\(1-x)(x-2)>0\\
$If you let $ y=(1-x)(x-2)\\
$then the statement will be true when $y>0\\
y=(1-x)(x-2)\\
y=-1x^2+3x-2\\
$this is a parabola- the coefficient of $ x^2$ is -1$\\
$So it is concave down.$\\
$The middle bit will be above the x axis where y is positive.$\\
$The roots are x=1 and x=2$\\
SO\\
(1-x)(x-2)>0\quad when\;\;1