1 in every 5000000000 is how many percent

hmmm, like melody just explained, it would be

$${\frac{{\mathtt{1}}}{{\mathtt{5\,000\,000\,000}}}}$$ and that gives you:

0.0000000002

then you gotta do the opposite of the Beyonce rule

to the right to the right...

and the correct answer to the question is:

.00000002%

$${\frac{{\mathtt{1}}}{{\mathtt{5\,000\,000\,000}}}}{\mathtt{\,\times\,}}{\mathtt{100}} = {\mathtt{0.000\: \!000\: \!02}}$$   

0.00000002% 

or    2*10^-8 %

melody, next time you have to convert decimals to fractions, theres no need to times it by 100.

JUST BREAK THE BEYONCE RULE!!!!

THATS RULE #2 IN THE HOLY MATH BIBLE!!!!

ok Titanium - I cannot argue with the HOLY MATH BIBLE