It's a matter of definition.
Do you think that zero is infinitely many times differentiable ?
We can take as many non-zero derivatives as the highest power of the polynomial dictates.
For example....
y = x^2
y' = 2x
y'' = 2
And the third derivative would be 0.
This answers the question clearly, unless you have CDD. In fact, CPhill’s answer is oriented to the first anon’s un-exposited answer, so you have to be a m***n with CDD to think otherwise.
This is an electronic parchment affirming the question is answered.
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