#1**+2 **

No...for example let's say f(x) = x^{2}

And...if p and s are the same, let's just call them both "p" .

First scenario:

g(x) = f(x) + p

g(x) = x^{2} + p

Second scenario:

g(x) = f(x + p)

g(x) = (x + p)^{2}

g(x) = (x + p)(x + p)

g(x) = x^{2} + 2px + p^{2}

f(x) + p ≠ f(x + p)

If f(x) = x, then yes they turn out the same.

But they are not always equal.

hectictar
May 16, 2017

#1**+2 **

Best Answer

No...for example let's say f(x) = x^{2}

And...if p and s are the same, let's just call them both "p" .

First scenario:

g(x) = f(x) + p

g(x) = x^{2} + p

Second scenario:

g(x) = f(x + p)

g(x) = (x + p)^{2}

g(x) = (x + p)(x + p)

g(x) = x^{2} + 2px + p^{2}

f(x) + p ≠ f(x + p)

If f(x) = x, then yes they turn out the same.

But they are not always equal.

hectictar
May 16, 2017