+0  
 
+1
162
1
avatar+956 

If f'(x) = 0 for all x, then 

 

a) f(x1) > f(x2) for every x1 > x2 

b) f(x1) < f(x2) for every x1 > x2

c) f(x1) > f(x2) for every x1 < x2 

d) f(x1) = f(x2) for every x1 < x2 

 

The difference from the last question is (=) instead of (>) -- In case you missed that :)

 Apr 11, 2018
 #1
avatar+96246 
+2

If  f'(x)  = 0  for all x, we just have a horizontal line....so....f(x)  will be the same for all values of x....so...

 

d) f(x1) = f(x2) for every x1 < x2 

 

 

cool cool cool

 Apr 11, 2018

32 Online Users

avatar
avatar
avatar
avatar
avatar
avatar
avatar

New Privacy Policy

We use cookies to personalise content and advertisements and to analyse access to our website. Furthermore, our partners for online advertising receive information about your use of our website.
For more information: our cookie policy and privacy policy.