+0  
 
+1
28
1
avatar+800 

If f'(x) = 0 for all x, then 

 

a) f(x1) > f(x2) for every x1 > x2 

b) f(x1) < f(x2) for every x1 > x2

c) f(x1) > f(x2) for every x1 < x2 

d) f(x1) = f(x2) for every x1 < x2 

 

The difference from the last question is (=) instead of (>) -- In case you missed that :)

Julius  Apr 11, 2018
Sort: 

1+0 Answers

 #1
avatar+85726 
+2

If  f'(x)  = 0  for all x, we just have a horizontal line....so....f(x)  will be the same for all values of x....so...

 

d) f(x1) = f(x2) for every x1 < x2 

 

 

cool cool cool

CPhill  Apr 11, 2018

17 Online Users

avatar
avatar
We use cookies to personalise content and ads, to provide social media features and to analyse our traffic. We also share information about your use of our site with our social media, advertising and analytics partners.  See details