+0  
 
+1
130
1
avatar+956 

If f'(x) = 0 for all x, then 

 

a) f(x1) > f(x2) for every x1 > x2 

b) f(x1) < f(x2) for every x1 > x2

c) f(x1) > f(x2) for every x1 < x2 

d) f(x1) = f(x2) for every x1 < x2 

 

The difference from the last question is (=) instead of (>) -- In case you missed that :)

Julius  Apr 11, 2018
 #1
avatar+92367 
+2

If  f'(x)  = 0  for all x, we just have a horizontal line....so....f(x)  will be the same for all values of x....so...

 

d) f(x1) = f(x2) for every x1 < x2 

 

 

cool cool cool

CPhill  Apr 11, 2018

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