+0  
 
0
674
2
avatar

f(x)<=x^2-x<=f(x+1)-x

prove that f(x)=x^2-x,for every any x as a real number 

am i supposed to state x+1=ω???

please help 

 Sep 12, 2015
 #1
avatar
0

I found it

 Sep 12, 2015
 #2
avatar+33666 
0

If f(x) = x^2 - x then f(x+1)- x = x^2 which means that if x is less than zero f(x) is greater than f(x+1)-x, so your proposition can't be true for all real x.

 Sep 12, 2015
edited by Alan  Sep 12, 2015

1 Online Users

avatar