#1**+1 **

I think false

Because polynomials with the same roots can have different graphs but I don't think the reverse is right tho..

Guest Oct 4, 2019

#2**+1 **

If you mean by "have the same graph" that you can pick up the graph of one polynomial and place it exactly on top of the other one,

i.e. that p1(x) = p2(x) then yes they have the same roots.

As the other poster noted the converse is not true. Polynomials with identical roots can have different graphs.

Rom Oct 4, 2019