factoring by graphing (Hi melody)

I think false

Because polynomials with the same roots can have different graphs but I don't think the reverse is right tho.. 

If you mean by "have the same graph" that you can pick up the graph of one polynomial and place it exactly on top of the other one, 

i.e. that p1(x) = p2(x) then yes they have the same roots.

 

As the other poster noted the converse is not true.  Polynomials with identical roots can have different graphs.