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(a) Let f : (-infty,0) U (0,infty) -> R be defined by f(x) = 1/x.  Show that f has no inverse function.

 

(b) Let g : (0,infty) -> R be defined by g(x) = (x + 1)/x.  Show that g has an inverse function.

 
 Jan 5, 2022

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