Let $
f(n) =
\begin{cases}
n^2+1 & \text{if }n\text{ is odd} \\
\dfrac{n}{2} & \text{if }n\text{ is even}
\end{cases}.
$
For how many integers $n$ from 1 to 100, inclusive, does $f ( f (\dotsb f (n) \dotsb )) = 1$ for some number of applications of $f$?
