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Let $
f(n) =
\begin{cases}
n^2+1 & \text{if }n\text{ is odd} \\
\dfrac{n}{2} & \text{if }n\text{ is even}
\end{cases}.
$

For how many integers $n$ from 1 to 100, inclusive, does $f ( f (\dotsb f (n) \dotsb )) = 1$ for some number of applications of $f$?

 Jul 15, 2022
 #1
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0

The answer is 20.

 Jul 15, 2022
 #2
avatar
0

that is not the right anwer

Guest Jul 15, 2022
 #3
avatar+118141 
0

You might get other answers if you present your question properly.

 Jul 16, 2022

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