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# Functions

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Let $f(n) = \begin{cases} n^2+1 & \text{if }n\text{ is odd} \\ \dfrac{n}{2} & \text{if }n\text{ is even} \end{cases}.$

For how many integers $n$ from 1 to 100, inclusive, does $f ( f (\dotsb f (n) \dotsb )) = 1$ for some number of applications of $f$?

Jul 15, 2022

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Jul 15, 2022
#2
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that is not the right anwer

Guest Jul 15, 2022
#3
+118141
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