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# Functions

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Hi, can someone help me with these two problems? (Please also explain how you got the answers)

1. Let $$f(x) : (-\infty,0) \cup (0,\infty) \to \mathbb{R}$$ be defined by f(x) = x - 1/x. Show that f(x) has no inverse function.

2. Let $$g(x) : (0,\infty) \to \mathbb{R}$$ be defined by g(x) = x - 1/x. Show that g(x) has an inverse function.

Thank you so much!

Dec 22, 2020
edited by Caffeine  Dec 22, 2020