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Consider the following statement: Let  f be a function, such that for all  a and b  in the domain of f, f(a)=f(b) implies a=b.  Then the function  f has an inverse.

Is this statement true or false? 

 Nov 19, 2020
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The result is false.  You can look at examples like f(x) = x^2, f(x) = x^3, f(x) = constant, etc.

 Nov 26, 2020

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