help

There is a reason :)

Think about this

\(4^2\div 4^2 = 4^{2-2}=4^0 \qquad \text {I have used the index laws}\)

but

\(4^2 \div 4^2 = 16\div 16 = 1\)

therefore

\(4^0=1\)

4 to the zeroth power equals 1

It equals 1. Anything to the 0th power is 1. I don't know why, there really isn't a reason.

No, Melody.....you are incorrect.....there is no reason.....LOL!!!!!!