+0  
 
0
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5
avatar+1898 

i think its same y-intercept

 May 16, 2019
 #1
avatar+8963 
+3

f(x)  and  g(x)  have the same y-intercept. True or false?

 

The y-intercept is the point on the graph where  x  is  0 .

 

By looking at the table, we can see that when  x = 0 ,  g(x) = 2 .

That means the y-intercept on the graph of  g(x)  is  (0, 2)

 

Is the y-intercept the same on the graph of f(x)?

That is, does  f(x)  appear to pass through the point  (0, 2)  ?

 May 16, 2019
 #2
avatar+1898 
+1

i think its false, im not sure which is correct then ?

jjennylove  May 16, 2019
 #3
avatar+1898 
0

oh wait no its does pass, it would be true

jjennylove  May 16, 2019
 #4
avatar+1898 
0

am i correct? is it true?

jjennylove  May 16, 2019
 #5
avatar+8963 
+3

f(x) does not pass through the point  (0, 2)

See where  (0, 2)  is on the graph:

 

 

Let's look at the next option....

 

f(x)  and  g(x)  have a common x-intercept. True or false?

 

An x-intercept is a point on the graph where  y  is  0 .

 

By looking at the table, we can see that when  g(x) = 0 ,  x = 2

That means an x-intercept on the graph of  g(x)  is  (2, 0)

 

Does  f(x)  also appear to pass through the point  (2, 0)  ?

If so, then it is true that f(x)  and  g(x)  have a common x-intercept.

 May 16, 2019
edited by hectictar  May 16, 2019
edited by hectictar  May 16, 2019

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