+0

# help

0
329
5 i think its same y-intercept

May 16, 2019

#1
+3

f(x)  and  g(x)  have the same y-intercept. True or false?

The y-intercept is the point on the graph where  x  is  0 .

By looking at the table, we can see that when  x = 0 ,  g(x) = 2 .

That means the y-intercept on the graph of  g(x)  is  (0, 2)

Is the y-intercept the same on the graph of f(x)?

That is, does  f(x)  appear to pass through the point  (0, 2)  ?

May 16, 2019
#2
+1

i think its false, im not sure which is correct then ?

jjennylove  May 16, 2019
#3
0

oh wait no its does pass, it would be true

jjennylove  May 16, 2019
#4
0

am i correct? is it true?

jjennylove  May 16, 2019
#5
+3

f(x) does not pass through the point  (0, 2)

See where  (0, 2)  is on the graph: Let's look at the next option....

f(x)  and  g(x)  have a common x-intercept. True or false?

An x-intercept is a point on the graph where  y  is  0 .

By looking at the table, we can see that when  g(x) = 0 ,  x = 2

That means an x-intercept on the graph of  g(x)  is  (2, 0)

Does  f(x)  also appear to pass through the point  (2, 0)  ?

If so, then it is true that f(x)  and  g(x)  have a common x-intercept.

May 16, 2019
edited by hectictar  May 16, 2019
edited by hectictar  May 16, 2019