We use cookies to personalise content and advertisements and to analyse access to our website. Furthermore, our partners for online advertising receive pseudonymised information about your use of our website. cookie policy and privacy policy.
 
+0  
 
0
149
5
avatar+976 

i think its same y-intercept

 May 16, 2019
 #1
avatar+8579 
+3

f(x)  and  g(x)  have the same y-intercept. True or false?

 

The y-intercept is the point on the graph where  x  is  0 .

 

By looking at the table, we can see that when  x = 0 ,  g(x) = 2 .

That means the y-intercept on the graph of  g(x)  is  (0, 2)

 

Is the y-intercept the same on the graph of f(x)?

That is, does  f(x)  appear to pass through the point  (0, 2)  ?

 May 16, 2019
 #2
avatar+976 
+1

i think its false, im not sure which is correct then ?

jjennylove  May 16, 2019
 #3
avatar+976 
0

oh wait no its does pass, it would be true

jjennylove  May 16, 2019
 #4
avatar+976 
0

am i correct? is it true?

jjennylove  May 16, 2019
 #5
avatar+8579 
+3

f(x) does not pass through the point  (0, 2)

See where  (0, 2)  is on the graph:

 

 

Let's look at the next option....

 

f(x)  and  g(x)  have a common x-intercept. True or false?

 

An x-intercept is a point on the graph where  y  is  0 .

 

By looking at the table, we can see that when  g(x) = 0 ,  x = 2

That means an x-intercept on the graph of  g(x)  is  (2, 0)

 

Does  f(x)  also appear to pass through the point  (2, 0)  ?

If so, then it is true that f(x)  and  g(x)  have a common x-intercept.

 May 16, 2019
edited by hectictar  May 16, 2019
edited by hectictar  May 16, 2019

6 Online Users