#1**+2 **

f(x) and g(x) have the same y-intercept. True or false?

The y-intercept is the point on the graph where x is 0 .

By looking at the table, we can see that when x = 0 , g(x) = 2 .

That means the y-intercept on the graph of g(x) is (0, 2)

Is the y-intercept the same on the graph of f(x)?

That is, does f(x) appear to pass through the point (0, 2) ?

hectictar May 16, 2019

#5**+2 **

f(x) does not pass through the point (0, 2)

See where (0, 2) is on the graph:

Let's look at the next option....

f(x) and g(x) have a common x-intercept. True or false?

An x-intercept is a point on the graph where y is 0 .

By looking at the table, we can see that when g(x) = 0 , x = 2

That means an x-intercept on the graph of g(x) is (2, 0)

Does f(x) also appear to pass through the point (2, 0) ?

If so, then it is true that f(x) and g(x) have a common x-intercept.

hectictar May 16, 2019